MRCPUK Endocrinology and Diabetes (Specialty Certificate Examination) : SEND

SEND real exams

Exam Code: SEND

Exam Name: Endocrinology and Diabetes (Specialty Certificate Examination)

Updated: May 31, 2026

Q & A: 200 Questions and Answers

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MRCPUK Endocrinology and Diabetes (Specialty Certificate Examination) Sample Questions:

1. A 60-year-old man with type 2 diabetes mellitus attended for an elective laparoscopic cholecystectomy. His oral hypoglycaemic medication regimen was metformin 1 g twice daily and gliclazide 160 mg twice daily. His haemoglobin A1c concentration had been 69 mmol/mol (20-42) when checked 2 months previously.
He was admitted on the morning of surgery and was on the morning list. He had fasted from midnight and taken metformin 1 g at 05.00 h.
On examination, he weighed 82 kg.
Investigations (on admission):
serum creatinine64 umol/L (60-110)
fasting plasma glucose18.1 mmol/L (3.0-6.0)
capillary blood ketones0.2 mmol/L (<1)
According to the Joint British Diabetes Societies guideline 'Management of adults with diabetes undergoing surgery and elective procedures', what is the most appropriate next step in management to bring his preoperative glucose into the acceptable range (4.0-12.0 mmol/L)?

A) rapid-acting analogue insulin 16 units subcutaneously
B) variable-rate insulin infusion
C) gliclazide 160 mg orally
D) rapid-acting analogue insulin 8 units subcutaneously
E) cancel surgery and refer to local diabetes team


2. A 16-year-old boy was referred with concern about delayed puberty. His stature had been short as a child. He reported an increase in height at the age of 13, and had begun to develop pubic hair at the age of 14. He reported no further growth or development in the past year. His father recalled going through puberty at the age of 13.
On examination, his height was 1.60 m (between 0.4th and 2nd centile), weight was 56.4 kg (between 9th and 25th centile), genital development was Tanner stage 2 and testicular volume was 8 mL bilaterally. Pubic hair was Tanner stage 2, with no evidence of androgenic axillary hair. Bone age at the left wrist was 13.5 years.
Investigations:
serum testosterone2.9 nmol/L (9.0-35.0)
Which feature in his clinical presentation most strongly suggests a diagnosis other than constitutional delay?

A) absence of axillary hair in the presence of pubic hair
B) discordance between the height centile and the weight centile
C) 2.5-year delay in bone age
D) being below the 2nd centile for height
E) failure to progress through puberty


3. A 19-year-old man was seen in the diabetes clinic. He had lost 2 kg in weight since the diagnosis of diabetes mellitus 18 months previously. At presentation, his body mass index was 33 kg/m2 (18-25), his random plasma glucose was 18.0 mmol/L and his haemoglobin A1c was 56 mmol/mol (20-42). He was taking gliclazide, and metformin had been added later. His father and grandfather had developed diabetes mellitus during their twenties.
Investigations:
haemoglobin A1c56 mmol/mol (20-42)
serum C-peptide301 pmol/L (180-360)
anti-glutamic acid decarboxylase (GAD)
antibodiesnegative
What is the most likely diagnosis?

A) latent-onset diabetes of autoimmunity
B) maturity-onset diabetes of the young
C) chronic pancreatitis
D) type 2 diabetes mellitus
E) type 1 diabetes mellitus


4. A 75-year-old woman presented with a 4-week history of lethargy. Her medical history was unremarkable and she took no medication.
On examination, her blood pressure was 140/70 mmHg lying. She was euvolaemic.
Investigations:
serum sodium120 mmol/L (137-144)
serum potassium3.8 mmol/L (3.5-4.9)
serum urea3.0 mmol/L (2.5-7.0)
serum creatinine75 umol/L (60-110)
short tetracosactide (Synacthen@) test (250 micrograms):
baseline serum cortisol450 nmol/L (200-700)
serum cortisol (30 min after tetracosactide)600 nmol/L (>550)
serum thyroid-stimulating hormone2.5 mU/L (0.4-5.0)
serum free T416.9 pmol/L (10.0-22.0)
urinary sodium70 mmol/L
What is the most appropriate initial management?

A) hydrocortisone
B) intravenous sodium chloride 0.9%
C) demeclocycline
D) fluid restriction
E) tolvaptan


5. A 34-year-old woman with Addison's disease reported four adrenal crises over the preceding 6 months, requiring hospital admission and intravenous administration of hydrocortisone. At outpatient follow-up, she was taking hydrocortisone 15 mg in the morning and 10 mg at midday, and fludrocortisone 50 micrograms daily.
What is the most important next step in management to prevent further crises?

A) measure plasma renin
B) change to sustained-release hydrocortisone
C) increase dosage of hydrocortisone
D) measure post-dose 09.00 h cortisol
E) measure plasma adrenocorticotropic hormone


Solutions:

Question # 1
Answer: D
Question # 2
Answer: E
Question # 3
Answer: B
Question # 4
Answer: D
Question # 5
Answer: A

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