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MRCPUK Endocrinology and Diabetes (Specialty Certificate Examination) Sample Questions:

1. A 16-year-old girl presented with primary amenorrhoea. In early childhood she had undergone an inguinal herniorrhaphy. She had no other medical history of note. There was a family history of infertility affecting a maternal aunt.
On examination, she had adult breast development but no pubic or axillary hair. Examination was otherwise normal.
What test is most likely to aid diagnosis?

A) MR scan of pituitary and olfactory bulbs
B) blood karyotype
C) ultrasound scan of pelvis
D) ovarian antibody titres
E) plasma gonadotropins

2. A 73-year-old man had been attending the diabetes clinic for 6 weeks with an ulcer on his right second metatarsal head. He had been receiving regular podiatry and offloading.
What new feature in the appearance of his foot is most likely to suggest the need to start antibiotics?

A) skin redness around ulcer
B) increase in ulcer size
C) tracking sinus
D) pain around ulcer
E) ulcer probing to bone

3. A 55-year-old woman presented complaining of difficulty losing weight.
On examination, her blood pressure was 170/105 mmHg and urinalysis showed protein 1+.
An ultrasound scan of abdomen revealed a 4.5-cm solid lesion in the right adrenal gland. She was treated with ramipril and further endocrine evaluation was performed.
Investigations:
serum potassium3.6 mmol/L (3.5-4.9)
serum creatinine135 umol/L (60-110)
plasma renin activity:
(after 30 min supine)3.9 pmol/mL/h (1.1-2.7)
(after 30 min upright)6.8 pmol/mL/h (3.0-4.3)
plasma aldosterone:
(after 30 min supine)150 pmol/L (135-400)
(after 4 h upright)350 pmol/L (330-830)
serum cortisol (09.00 h)650 nmol/L (200-700)
serum cortisol (22.00 h)225 nmol/L (50-250)
24-h urinary free cortisol230 nmol (55-250)
24-h urinary dopamine3200 nmol (<3100)
24-h urinary adrenaline120 nmol (<144)
24-h urinary noradrenaline450 nmol (<570)
What is the most appropriate initial management of the adrenal lesion?

A) angiotensin-2 receptor blockade
B) ?-adrenoceptor blockade
C) surgical excision
D) medical observation with annual ultrasonography
E) mineralocorticoid receptor blockade

4. A 27-year-old woman presented with a 6-month history of amenorrhoea and low mood. She complained of headaches but no visual disturbance. Her past medical history included anorexia nervosa but her current weight was stable.
On examination, her body mass index was 20.2 kg/m2 (18-25). Routine physical examination was normal and there was no galactorrhoea. Visual fields were full to confrontation.
Investigations:
serum cortisol (09.00 h)320 nmol/L (200-700)
short tetracosactide (Synacthen@) test (250 micrograms): serum cortisol (30 min after tetracosactide)630 nmol/L (>550) serum oestradiol200 pmol/L (200-400) plasma follicle-stimulating hormone2 U/L (2.5-10.0) plasma luteinising hormone4 U/L (2.5-10.0)
serum prolactin1001 mU/L (<360) serum free T418.0 pmol/L (10.0-22.0)
serum ?-human chorionic gonadotropin<5 U/L (<5)
What is the most appropriate next step in management?

A) pregnancy test
B) encourage weight gain and reassess after 2 months
C) MR scan of pituitary
D) start cabergoline 0.5 mg/week
E) ultrasound scan of ovaries

5. A 76-year-old man with a 17-year history of type 2 diabetes mellitus attended for his annual review. Comparison of his retinal screening report with the previous year's report showed that his visual acuity was unchanged at 6/9 in both eyes. The previous year's right eye retinal image had been reported as 'pre-proliferative retinopathy', whereas this year's was reported as 'pre-proliferative retinopathy with maculopathy'.
What is the most appropriate next step?

A) routine re-screen in 6 months
B) routine re-screen in 12 months
C) routine referral to an ophthalmologist
D) urgent re-screen within 2 weeks
E) urgent referral to an ophthalmologist within 2 weeks

Solutions: